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CompTIA A+ Certification Exam: Core 2 Practice Questions

Prepare for 220-1202 with more than an answer.

292 questions in the full set19 sample questionsUpdated Jan 18, 2026

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  • v1Comptia A+ Certification Exam: Core 2 292 questions Current
  • 220-1002Legacy A+ Certification Exam: Core 2 259 questions Locked
  • 220-1102Legacy Comptia A+ Certification Exam: Core 2 49 questions Locked
Exam fee
$246 USD
Level
Entry-level
Valid for
3 years from certification date
Domains covered on the exam 4
  1. Operating Systems28%
  2. Security28%
  3. Software Troubleshooting23%
  4. Operational Procedures21%
  1. 1

    A mobile device running iOS 17 has started displaying excessive advertisements even when no apps are open. The device is also experiencing rapid battery drain and unexpected data usage. The user has not jailbroken the device. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause?

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    Correct answer: A

    On non-jailbroken iOS devices, malicious configuration profiles are the most common way adware gets installed. These profiles can be installed through phishing links or malicious websites and can inject advertisements system-wide, cause battery drain through constant background activity, and consume data by downloading and displaying ads. iOS's sandboxing prevents traditional malware, but configuration profiles have elevated permissions. Users should check Settings > General > VPN & Device Management for unknown profiles and remove them.

  2. 2

    A technician is implementing a backup strategy for a small business with 2TB of critical data. The business requires daily backups with the ability to restore data from any day within the past 30 days, while minimizing storage costs. Which backup rotation scheme would BEST meet these requirements?

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    Correct answer: B

    The Grandfather-Father-Son (GFS) rotation scheme with incremental daily backups best balances the requirements. GFS performs daily incremental backups (Sons), weekly full backups (Fathers), and monthly full backups (Grandfathers). This provides daily restore points for 30 days while minimizing storage because incremental backups only store changes since the last backup. With 2TB of data, daily full backups would require 60TB of storage, while GFS with incrementals might only need 6-8TB, significantly reducing costs while meeting all recovery requirements.

  3. 3

    A company is deploying Windows 11 Enterprise workstations using Microsoft Endpoint Configuration Manager. The IT team wants to deploy systems without any user interaction during the installation process. Which deployment method should they use?

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    Correct answer: B

    Zero-touch deployment is the correct method for completely automated OS deployment without user interaction. Using Microsoft Endpoint Configuration Manager (formerly SCCM), IT can prestage computers in Active Directory, configure task sequences, and deploy Windows 11 automatically when devices connect to the network. The entire process - from bare metal to fully configured workstation with applications and settings - occurs without any user or technician intervention, making it ideal for large-scale enterprise deployments.

  4. 4

    A security administrator notices that several employees' browsers are redirecting to suspicious websites despite having updated antivirus software. The MDR service provider reports detecting fileless malware on these systems. What makes fileless malware particularly difficult to detect?

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    Correct answer: B

    Fileless malware operates entirely in system memory (RAM) and uses legitimate system tools like PowerShell, WMI, or registry entries to execute malicious code, never writing traditional files to disk. This makes it invisible to traditional antivirus scanners that rely on file-based detection. The malware persists through registry modifications or scheduled tasks but leaves no traditional malware files. Managed Detection and Response (MDR) services can detect it through behavioral analysis and memory scanning, monitoring for suspicious use of legitimate tools rather than looking for malware files.

  5. 5

    During a code review, a security analyst flags a piece of a web application's backend code that builds a database query by directly concatenating user input into an SQL string. The analyst warns this is a major security flaw. Which of the following is the MOST effective and standard method to mitigate the vulnerability described?

    graph TD subgraph Unsafe_Method ["Unsafe: String Concatenation"] A[User Input: ' OR 1=1; --] --> B{Build SQL String}; B --> C["SELECT * FROM users WHERE id = '' OR 1=1; --'"]; C --> D[Execute Query]; D --> E[Returns ALL User Data]; end subgraph Safe_Method ["Safe: Parameterized Query"] F[User Input: ' OR 1=1; --] --> G{Bind as Parameter}; G --> H["SELECT * FROM users WHERE id = ?"]; H --> I[Execute with Parameter]; I --> J[No Results / Error]; end
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    Correct answer: A

    The vulnerability described is a classic SQL injection flaw. The most effective way to prevent this is to use parameterized queries, also known as prepared statements. This method separates the SQL query's structure from the data. User input is treated strictly as data and is never executed as code, thereby neutralizing any malicious SQL commands an attacker tries to inject. While a WAF provides a valuable defense-in-depth layer, fixing the insecure code at the source with parameterized queries is the fundamental and most reliable solution.

  6. 6

    A support specialist needs to establish remote connectivity to assist with a legacy Ubuntu server running critical business applications. The solution must provide complete desktop visualization and allow real-time interaction with the user's graphical session for collaborative troubleshooting. Which of the following remote access technologies would be most appropriate for this requirement?

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    Correct answer: D

    VNC (Virtual Network Computing) is the correct choice for providing remote desktop access to Linux systems with graphical user interface support. Unlike SSH which only provides command-line access, VNC transmits the complete desktop environment including GUI applications, allowing the technician to see exactly what the user sees and interact with graphical applications. VPN creates secure network tunnels but doesn't provide desktop sharing capabilities. RDP is Microsoft's proprietary protocol optimized for Windows systems and has limited cross-platform compatibility with Linux environments. Per CompTIA A+ 220-1202 objective 4.9, VNC is specifically designed for cross-platform remote desktop access and collaborative troubleshooting scenarios.

  7. 7

    A systems administrator is trying to join a Windows 11 Pro workstation to the corporate Active Directory domain but receives an error stating the domain controller cannot be located. The administrator confirms network connectivity by successfully pinging the domain controller and accessing external websites. Based on the network configuration shown in the image, which of the following actions should the administrator take to resolve the domain join issue?

    Question exhibit
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    Correct answer: A

    Configuring proper DNS server addresses is essential for domain join operations. Windows uses DNS to locate domain controllers through SRV records (_ldap._tcp.dc._msdcs.domain.com). While the workstation can ping IP addresses and access the internet (indicating basic network connectivity), domain join specifically requires DNS resolution of the domain name and domain controller service records. The ability to ping by IP but fail domain join typically indicates DNS configuration issues. Per CompTIA A+ 220-1202 objectives 1.7 and 2.2, proper DNS configuration pointing to the domain controller's DNS server is mandatory for Active Directory domain join operations in Windows 11 Pro environments.

  8. 8

    An IT administrator discovers that the organization's core network infrastructure equipment has reached end-of-life status and requires immediate replacement to maintain security compliance and vendor support. Following proper change management procedures, which of the following should the administrator do as the initial step?

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    Correct answer: B

    Submitting a formal change request is the first step in any structured change management process. Before any infrastructure changes can be evaluated, approved, scheduled, or implemented, a documented change request must be created that outlines the purpose, scope, impact analysis, and justification for the change. This aligns with CompTIA A+ 220-1202 objective 4.2 which emphasizes documented business processes and change management procedures. The change request should include details about the EOL equipment, security risks, proposed replacement timeline, and business impact assessment. Only after this formal documentation is created can the change board review and approve the request, followed by scheduling and implementation phases.

  9. 9

    A user reports that their smartphone's two-factor authentication app stopped generating valid codes for their corporate cloud applications after returning from an international business trip. The authentication tokens were working properly before traveling overseas. Which of the following should the IT support specialist check first to resolve this MFA issue?

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    Correct answer: A

    TOTP (Time-based One-Time Password) authentication requires precise time synchronization between the mobile device and authentication servers. When traveling internationally, devices may experience time zone changes, automatic daylight saving adjustments, or network time synchronization issues that cause the device clock to drift from the server time. Even small time discrepancies (typically >30 seconds) will cause TOTP codes to be rejected. This is the most common cause of MFA failures after international travel. Per CompTIA A+ 220-1202 objectives 2.8 and 3.2, time synchronization is critical for mobile device security features, and checking time settings should be the first troubleshooting step before more complex solutions like reinstalling applications or contacting developers.

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