certified-development-lifecycle-and-deployment-architect Salesforce Certified Platform Development Lifecycle and Deployment Architect Practice Questions
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- Exam fee
- $400 USD
- Level
- Architect
- Valid for
- Ongoing with maintenance exams
Domains covered on the exam 8
- Application Lifecycle Management8%
- Planning13%
- System Design15%
- Building14%
- Deploying14%
- Testing13%
- Releasing13%
- Operating10%
- 1
A company has a single production org and has just acquired another company with its own Salesforce org. The leadership team has decided to keep both orgs separate for the foreseeable future due to distinct business processes. However, they want to enforce a common set of foundational components, such as a custom logging framework and security components, across both orgs. They also need the ability to push upgrades of these components to both orgs simultaneously. Which development and deployment model should the architect recommend?
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Correct answer: C
Managed Packages are the perfect solution for this use case. They allow the central team to encapsulate the components, protect them from modification in the subscriber orgs (enforcing the standard), and easily push upgrades to both orgs. A namespace ensures the components will not conflict with any existing or future customizations in either org.
- 2
A project is approaching its go-live date. The architect is responsible for creating a rollback plan in case the deployment fails or causes critical issues in production. The deployment consists of new Apex classes, Lightning components, and a custom object with new fields. Which statement accurately describes the rollback capabilities for this deployment?
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Correct answer: A
This is the correct approach. A true rollback requires a subsequent deployment. For additive changes (new classes, components, fields), the rollback plan involves creating a deployment package that includes a
destructiveChanges.xmlfile listing the components to be deleted, along with an emptypackage.xml. - 3
True or False: Using the Agile Accelerator package in Salesforce eliminates the need for an external source control system like Git.
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Correct answer: B
This statement is false. The Agile Accelerator is a project management tool, not a source control system. It helps manage the 'what' and 'why' of development (user stories), but a separate system like Git is still required to manage the 'how' (the actual code and metadata).
- 4
An organization is experiencing slow performance on key Visualforce pages and SOQL queries. They run the Salesforce Optimizer report and it returns several recommendations. Which of the following recommendations, if found in the report, would directly address performance issues related to Apex and SOQL? (Select TWO)
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Correct answer: B, D
This is another major performance anti-pattern that Salesforce Optimizer can detect. Placing a SOQL query inside a
forloop can quickly exceed the governor limit for total queries (100 in a synchronous transaction) and is extremely inefficient.This is a critical performance recommendation. Non-selective queries (those that don't use an indexed field in the WHERE clause) can cause full table scans, leading to very slow performance and potential governor limit exceptions, especially in triggers.
- 5
A development team has adopted a release train model, with scheduled releases to production every two weeks. A major new feature is still under development and will not be ready for the next two release trains, but the partially completed code has already been merged into the main development branch. The release manager needs to proceed with the next release without including the unfinished feature. Which technique should the architect recommend?
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Correct answer: C
Feature flags are the standard industry best practice for this scenario. They allow incomplete features to be deployed to production in a disabled state. This decouples deployment from release, allowing the release train to proceed on schedule. The code is present but not active, so it doesn't impact users. Once the feature is complete, it can be enabled via configuration (e.g., a custom permission or custom metadata setting) without a new deployment.
- 6
A financial services firm is implementing a complex, multi-stream development model with three parallel projects targeting the same production org. The CTO has mandated a strict quality gate process where features from different projects must be integrated and tested together before being considered for a production release. The current process involves manual merges, which has led to significant delays and integration bugs. The architect needs to recommend a branching strategy that formalizes this integration step and provides stability for releases.
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Correct answer: D
GitFlow is the optimal choice because its structure is designed for this exact scenario. Feature branches provide isolation for each project stream. The 'develop' branch serves as the mandatory integration point where all features are merged and tested together, fulfilling the CTO's requirement for a quality gate. The 'main' branch remains stable, only receiving code that has passed integration testing.
- 7
A large enterprise is adopting Salesforce DevOps Center. They have a complex pipeline with stages for Integration, UAT, Staging, and Production. The security team requires that any deployment to the UAT environment must first pass all Apex tests, but they want to avoid running tests on every commit to the Integration environment to speed up development cycles. How should the architect configure the DevOps Center pipeline stages to meet these requirements?
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Correct answer: A
This is the correct configuration. In DevOps Center, setting a stage's test level to 'Default' means no tests are run upon promotion into that stage. Setting the UAT stage's test level to 'Run Local Tests' enforces that all local tests must pass before a promotion into UAT is successful, meeting the security team's requirement. This balances speed in early stages with quality control in later stages.
- 8
A global healthcare provider is using Event Monitoring to track user activity for HIPAA compliance. They are specifically concerned about unauthorized access to patient data stored in a custom object named
Medical_Record__c. An architect needs to design a monitoring solution to generate a near real-time alert whenever a user who is NOT a member of the 'Clinical Staff' public group views more than 10Medical_Record__crecords within a 5-minute window. Which combination of tools is best suited to build this solution? (Select TWO)Show answer details
Correct answer: A, D
Transaction Security Policies are the core mechanism for this. They can be configured to trigger on the 'ReportEvent' (when a user runs a report or list view) or 'ApiEvent' and evaluate complex conditions in near real-time using Apex or Condition Builder. This is where the logic for user group, record count, and time window would be implemented.
These are the specific Real-Time Event Monitoring events that capture the user's action of viewing records via reports or list views. The Transaction Security Policy would be triggered by one of these events to evaluate the conditions and take action.
- 9
A development team is building a new feature using the package development model. They have created an unlocked package version and promoted it through their CI/CD pipeline to the UAT sandbox. During UAT, a critical bug is found. The developer fixes the bug in their scratch org. What is the correct sequence of steps the developer must take to get the bug fix deployed to UAT?
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Correct answer: C
This is the correct process for the package development model. Changes to a package must be incorporated by creating a new version of that package. This new version is then promoted (made available for installation) and installed into the target orgs (like UAT), which performs an upgrade. This maintains the integrity and version history of the package.
- 10
A company performs weekly deployments to production every Saturday. The release manager wants to implement a comprehensive testing strategy that ensures high quality without significantly delaying the release. The architect has defined several testing phases: Unit Tests, Regression Testing, Performance Testing, and User Acceptance Testing (UAT). Which testing phase is MOST critical to perform in the full copy sandbox (Staging) right before the production deployment?
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Correct answer: C
The full copy sandbox, which mirrors production data and configuration, is the ideal and final environment for two critical pre-deployment activities. 1) Regression Testing: to ensure that the new changes haven't broken existing functionality. 2) UAT: to allow business users to provide final sign-off that the new functionality meets their requirements in a production-like setting. These are the last quality gates before go-live.
