CPA-TEST Cpa Test Practice Questions
Prepare for CPA-TEST with more than an answer.
- Level
- Professional
- Valid for
- 30 months to complete all 4 sections
Domains covered on the exam 6
- CORE SECTION - Auditing and Attestation
- CORE SECTION - Financial Accounting and Reporting
- CORE SECTION - Taxation and Regulation
- DISCIPLINE - Business Analysis and Reporting
- DISCIPLINE - Information Systems and Controls
- DISCIPLINE - Tax Compliance and Planning
- 1
A company acquires a new subsidiary in a business combination. The company must allocate the purchase price to the assets acquired and liabilities assumed. Which of the following would be recognized as an identifiable intangible asset separate from goodwill?
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Correct answer: C
Under ASC 805, an asset is identifiable if it meets either the contractual-legal criterion or the separability criterion. An in-process research and development (IPR&D) project acquired in a business combination is considered an identifiable intangible asset, measured at fair value, and recognized separately from goodwill, even if it has no alternative future use. An assembled workforce is specifically excluded from being recognized as a separate intangible asset and is part of goodwill. A customer list must be separable (e.g., can be sold or licensed) or arise from contractual rights to be recognized. Potential contracts are not yet assets.
- 2
Which of the following creates an employer-employee relationship for FICA (Social Security and Medicare) tax purposes?
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Correct answer: A
The primary determinant of an employer-employee relationship for tax purposes is the degree of control and independence. If the payer has the right to control and direct the individual who performs the services, not only as to the result to be accomplished but also as to the details and means by which that result is accomplished, an employer-employee relationship exists. The other options describe characteristics more typical of an independent contractor relationship.
- 3
A CPA is performing a business analysis for a client and needs to transform raw sales data into a format suitable for forecasting. The raw data is a large text file with transactional data that is not uniformly structured. Which of the following data analytic processes would be most appropriate as the first step?
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Correct answer: B
Before any meaningful analysis like regression or visualization can be performed on raw, unstructured data, it must first be processed. This involves parsing (extracting the relevant information from the text file) and cleansing (correcting errors, handling missing values, standardizing formats). This process, often part of an Extract, Transform, Load (ETL) workflow, is the essential first step to convert unstructured data into a structured format (like a table) that analytic tools can use.
- 4
A SOC 2 report is being prepared for a cloud service provider. The report will cover the Security, Availability, and Confidentiality Trust Services Criteria. Which of the following is an example of a control activity that would specifically address the Availability criterion?
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Correct answer: C
The Availability criterion focuses on whether the system is available for operation and use as committed or agreed. Controls that support availability include performance monitoring, disaster recovery, and redundancy. Maintaining redundant power supplies (to prevent outages) and regularly testing the disaster recovery plan ensure the system can be restored and remain available in the event of a failure. MFA primarily addresses the Security criterion. Encryption primarily addresses the Confidentiality criterion. Logical access reviews primarily address the Security criterion.
- 5
An individual is considering two options for their retirement savings: contributing to a Traditional 401(k) or a Roth 401(k). The individual is currently in a high tax bracket but expects to be in a lower tax bracket during retirement. Which of the following statements is the most accurate advice for this individual?
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Correct answer: B
The primary decision factor between Traditional and Roth accounts is the comparison of one's current marginal tax rate to their expected future marginal tax rate. A Traditional 401(k) contribution is made pre-tax, providing an immediate tax deduction. Withdrawals in retirement are then taxed. A Roth 401(k) contribution is made post-tax, with no current deduction, but withdrawals are tax-free. For someone in a high tax bracket now who expects to be in a lower bracket in retirement, the Traditional 401(k) is generally more advantageous because the tax deduction today is more valuable than the tax-free withdrawals would be in the future.
- 6
A CPA firm is auditing Innovatech, a pre-IPO software-as-a-service (SaaS) startup. The audit team notes the following:
- Innovatech recognizes revenue from 3-year, non-cancellable contracts at the point of sale, arguing the cash is received upfront and the service is 'always-on'.
- The company recently pivoted its business model, causing significant recurring losses. Management's going concern assessment relies heavily on securing a future Series C funding round, for which they only have a verbal expression of interest from a venture capital firm.
- The lead developer, who wrote most of the proprietary source code, left the company acrimoniously and has threatened litigation over intellectual property rights.
Which of the following audit opinions is most appropriate given these circumstances, assuming all issues are material?
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Correct answer: C
An adverse opinion is appropriate because the misstatements are both material and pervasive. Recognizing 3-year contract revenue upfront is a significant departure from GAAP (ASC 606), which requires revenue to be recognized over time as the service is delivered. This misstatement would pervasively affect numerous accounts, including revenue, deferred revenue, net income, and retained earnings. Furthermore, relying on a verbal expression of interest for funding is insufficient to mitigate a substantial doubt about going concern, and if disclosures are inadequate, this compounds the issue. A qualified opinion is insufficient for such a pervasive misstatement. An unmodified opinion is inappropriate. A disclaimer of opinion would be for a scope limitation, not a GAAP departure.
- 7
During the audit of a publicly traded manufacturer, the auditor determines the need to use an actuary (an auditor's specialist) to assist in evaluating the reasonableness of the client's pension benefit obligation (PBO). The specialist is not employed by the audit firm. Which action is required by the auditor in relation to using this specialist's work?
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Correct answer: B
According to both AICPA (AU-C 620) and PCAOB (AS 1210) standards, when using the work of an auditor's specialist, the auditor has a responsibility to evaluate the specialist's competence, capabilities, and objectivity. This includes inquiring about their professional certification, experience, and any relationship with the client that might impair objectivity. The auditor does not divide responsibility by referring to the specialist in the report for an unmodified opinion. Obtaining a written report is a good practice but the primary responsibility is to evaluate the specialist's conclusions and their consistency with other audit evidence, not just to obtain the report. The specialist's work is part of the audit evidence, not a replacement for management's representations.
- 8
An auditor is performing procedures related to subsequent events for an audit of a non-issuer with a December 31 year-end. The audit report is dated March 1. Which TWO of the following procedures would be most appropriate for the auditor to perform specifically to identify subsequent events? (Select TWO)
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Correct answer: B, C
Inquiring of management about events that have occurred subsequent to the balance sheet date is a primary procedure to identify subsequent events.
Reading interim financial statements issued after the balance sheet date can reveal significant events, transactions, or changes in the business that occurred during the subsequent period.
- 9
On January 1, Year 1, Apex Corp. sells a manufacturing facility to a buyer for $5,000,000 cash. The facility has a carrying amount of $3,500,000. On the same day, Apex leases the facility back for 10 years, with annual payments of $400,000 due at the beginning of each year. The present value of the lease payments is $2,800,000, and the fair value of the facility is determined to be $5,200,000. The lease does not transfer ownership or contain a purchase option. How should Apex account for this transaction on January 1, Year 1?
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Correct answer: D
Under ASC 842, a sale-leaseback is accounted for as a sale if the transfer meets the requirements of ASC 606. Here, it does. The gain on sale is calculated as (Fair Value - Carrying Amount) = $5,200,000 - $3,500,000 = $1,700,000. However, because the sale price ($5,000,000) is less than fair value ($5,200,000), the $200,000 difference is treated as prepaid rent, not as additional financing. The total gain recognized is the original carrying amount difference: $5,000,000 - $3,500,000 = $1,500,000. The Right-of-Use (ROU) asset is measured proportionally: (PV of lease payments / Fair value of asset) * Carrying amount of asset = ($2,800,000 / $5,200,000) * $5,000,000 = $2,692,308. This complex calculation ensures the ROU asset reflects the portion of the asset 'retained' by the seller-lessee.
- 10
Parent Co. owns 70% of Subsidiary Co. and consolidates its financial statements. During the year, Parent sold inventory to Subsidiary for $100,000, which had cost Parent $70,000. At year-end, 40% of this inventory remains in Subsidiary's warehouse. The noncontrolling interest (NCI) in Subsidiary's net income for the year, before considering the intercompany transaction, was $30,000. What is the amount of net income attributable to the noncontrolling interest that should be reported in Parent's consolidated income statement?
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Correct answer: B
First, calculate the total unrealized profit in the ending inventory from the downstream sale. The total profit on the sale was $100,000 - $70,000 = $30,000. The portion of inventory remaining is 40%, so the unrealized profit is $30,000 * 40% = $12,000. In a downstream sale (Parent to Sub), the entire unrealized profit reduces the Parent's income before it is allocated. Therefore, the consolidated net income is reduced by $12,000. This reduction affects the calculation of income attributable to NCI. Subsidiary's reported net income must be adjusted. The NCI's share of Subsidiary's income is calculated after adjusting for the unrealized profit. The NCI's share of the adjustment is 30% * $12,000 = $3,600. The final NCI income is $30,000 - $3,600 = $26,400. Even though it is a downstream sale, the calculation of NCI's share of subsidiary income is based on the subsidiary's income after eliminating the effects of intercompany transactions.
