sasm Practice Questions
Prepare for sasm with more than an answer.
- Level
- Advanced
Domains covered on the exam 3
- Supporting ART Events and Finishing the PI40%
- Improving Flow40%
- Build High-Performing Teams20%
- 1
True or False: The primary purpose of the IP (Innovation and Planning) Iteration is to serve as a buffer to finish any work that did not get completed during the standard Iterations of the PI.
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Correct answer: B
This statement is false. While the IP Iteration does provide a small, estimating guard band, its primary purposes are innovation, continuing education, PI Planning readiness, and the Inspect & Adapt workshop. Routinely using it to finish standard work is an anti-pattern that undermines predictability and eliminates the time needed for its intended value-adding activities.
- 2
Case Study:
An e-commerce ART, 'CheckoutFlow', is preparing for its quarterly PI Planning. In the lead-up, the Product Management team has identified over 100 potential features for the upcoming PI. The teams feel overwhelmed by the sheer volume and lack of clear priority. During backlog refinement sessions, discussions are unfocused, and there is no consensus on what the most important outcomes for the next PI should be. The RTE is concerned that the PI Planning event will be chaotic and unproductive.
As an Advanced Scrum Master coaching the ART, you observe this breakdown in the 'Continuous Exploration' part of the Continuous Delivery Pipeline. The process lacks a mechanism to synthesize ideas into a coherent vision and roadmap for the upcoming PI.
What is the most critical SAFe artifact or event that is likely missing or being performed ineffectively, which the Scrum Master should help Product Management implement?
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Correct answer: B
The scenario describes a lack of focus and prioritization. The PI Vision is the critical artifact that synthesizes business goals into a clear, concise message about the purpose of the upcoming PI. It provides the 'why'. The top 10 Features list provides the 'what', giving teams a prioritized, manageable set of goals to focus on during PI Planning. Without these inputs, PI Planning becomes a bottom-up exercise with no strategic alignment, leading to the chaos described.
- 3
A conflict arises between two teams on the ART. Team A believes Team B is not providing adequate support for a shared API, causing delays. Team B claims Team A is using the API incorrectly and not following the documentation. The conflict is escalating, and both teams' Scrum Masters are unable to resolve it. What is the most appropriate next step for an Advanced Scrum Master to take?
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Correct answer: B
An Advanced Scrum Master's role is to coach and facilitate, not to dictate solutions or immediately escalate. The best approach is to bring the teams together to solve their own problem. By facilitating a session focused on objective facts (how the API is used vs. how it was designed) and creating shared understanding, the Scrum Master empowers the teams to develop a sustainable solution and improve their future collaboration through clear working agreements.
- 4
Which of the following metrics is a direct measure of an ART's predictability?
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Correct answer: B
The Program Predictability Measure is a key SAFe metric. It is calculated by comparing the actual business value achieved for PI Objectives against the planned business value. This metric directly assesses how well the ART is able to deliver on its commitments, which is the definition of predictability. It is a primary output of the Inspect & Adapt workshop.
- 5
To improve the flow of value, an ART is focused on reducing the size of work items. Which statement best describes the relationship between transaction cost and holding cost when optimizing batch size?
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Correct answer: B
This describes the principle of U-curve optimization. Holding cost (cost of delay) decreases as batch size gets smaller, while transaction cost (overhead of processing each batch) increases. The total cost is the sum of these two. The optimal batch size is at the lowest point of this 'U' shaped total cost curve, which represents the best economic trade-off. The goal is to lower the entire curve by reducing transaction costs through automation.
- 6
A newly formed Agile Release Train (ART) is struggling with alignment during its first PI Planning event. Teams are creating plans that have numerous cross-team dependencies, but they are not actively collaborating to resolve them, leading to a program board with many uncommitted objectives. What is the most effective initial action for an Advanced Scrum Master to take?
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Correct answer: B
The most effective initial action is to facilitate direct communication and problem-solving among the teams. A Scrum of Scrums during the breakout provides a dedicated forum for dependency management and negotiation, empowering the teams to self-organize and align their plans. Stopping the event is a drastic measure, escalating to management removes team ownership, and documenting dependencies without resolving them does not address the core issue of collaboration.
- 7
An Agile team's lead time is increasing, and their cumulative flow diagram (CFD) shows a widening 'In Progress' band, indicating that Work in Process (WIP) is aging. The team feels constantly busy but delivers features unpredictably. Which flow accelerator should an Advanced Scrum Master coach the team to apply first?
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Correct answer: C
The primary cause of increasing lead time and aging WIP is having too many items in progress simultaneously. Visualizing the workflow and implementing explicit WIP limits forces the team to focus on completing existing work before starting new items. This directly tackles the problem described, improves predictability, and reduces context switching. While other accelerators are valuable, limiting WIP is the foundational first step for this specific scenario.
- 8
During an Iteration Retrospective, two senior developers dominate the conversation, consistently shutting down suggestions from junior team members. This has led to a noticeable decrease in participation from the rest of the team. As an Advanced Scrum Master, what facilitation technique would be most effective to ensure all voices are heard and foster psychological safety?
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Correct answer: C
The '1-2-4-All' liberating structure is specifically designed to address this type of dysfunction. It allows for individual, silent reflection first (1), ensuring that everyone's initial thoughts are captured without being influenced or shut down by dominant personalities. The subsequent sharing in pairs (2), then fours (4), and finally with the whole group (All) creates a safer, more structured environment for all ideas to be heard and considered. This directly promotes psychological safety and balanced participation.
- 9
An Agile Release Train is conducting its first Inspect and Adapt (I&A) workshop. The teams have successfully completed the quantitative measurement part of the event. What is the primary purpose of the problem-solving workshop that follows?
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Correct answer: B
The problem-solving workshop's main goal is to move beyond symptoms and perform a root cause analysis (e.g., using Fishbone diagrams or 5 Whys) on the most significant challenges the ART faced during the Program Increment. The outcome is a set of actionable improvement items that are added to the ART backlog to be worked on in the next PI, fostering relentless improvement.
- 10
True or False: In SAFe, the primary responsibility for resolving dependencies between teams on an Agile Release Train lies with the Release Train Engineer.
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Correct answer: B
This statement is false. While the Release Train Engineer (RTE) facilitates dependency management and helps remove impediments, the primary responsibility lies with the Agile teams themselves. SAFe promotes self-organization and decentralized decision-making, encouraging teams to communicate and resolve dependencies directly with each other, especially during PI Planning.
