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HAAD Licensure Examination for Registered Nurses Practice Questions

Prepare for HAAD-RN with more than an answer.

228 questions in the full set20 sample questionsUpdated Aug 21, 2026
Exam fee
$168 USD
Level
Professional License
Valid for
License valid with employer sponsorship
Domains covered on the exam 4
  1. Fundamentals of Nursing25%
  2. Medical-Surgical Nursing30%
  3. Maternal and Child Health Nursing25%
  4. Community Health and Mental Health Nursing20%
  1. 1

    True or False: A sterile object remains sterile only when touched by another sterile object; placing a sterile object on a wet, non-sterile surface contaminates the object.

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    Correct answer: A

    This statement is a fundamental principle of surgical asepsis. A sterile field becomes contaminated if it gets wet because moisture can act as a wick, drawing microorganisms from the non-sterile surface up to the sterile object. Therefore, any sterile item that comes into contact with a wet, contaminated surface is considered unsterile.

  2. 2

    A nurse is caring for a patient who had a stroke resulting in left-sided hemianopsia. Which nursing intervention is most appropriate to ensure the patient's safety during meals?

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    Correct answer: A

    Hemianopsia is a loss of vision in half of the visual field. Patients with this condition are often unaware of the deficit and may ignore food on the affected side of the tray. The most effective intervention is to teach the patient to actively scan their environment by turning their head. This compensatory strategy helps them see the entire plate and reduces the risk of neglecting food and potential spills.

  3. 3

    Case Study Scenario:

    A 4-year-old child is brought to the pediatric emergency department with a high fever, sore throat, drooling, and inspiratory stridor. The child is sitting upright in a tripod position and appears very anxious. The nurse suspects acute epiglottitis.

    Which of the following actions by the nurse is the highest priority?

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    Correct answer: B

    Acute epiglottitis is a life-threatening emergency that can lead to complete airway obstruction. The classic signs are present (drooling, dysphagia, distress, tripod position). The highest priority is to secure the airway. This means notifying the provider and anesthesiologist immediately and preparing for intubation in a controlled setting, often the operating room. Any attempt to visualize the throat or cause further anxiety (like starting an IV) can precipitate laryngospasm and complete airway closure.

  4. 4

    A nurse is caring for a patient with severe sepsis. The provider has ordered a large volume of intravenous fluids. The nurse understands that the primary goal of this fluid resuscitation is to:

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    Correct answer: C

    In sepsis, widespread vasodilation and capillary leak lead to a relative hypovolemia and decreased venous return, causing hypotension and poor tissue perfusion. The primary goal of aggressive fluid resuscitation is to increase the circulating intravascular volume, which in turn increases mean arterial pressure (MAP) and cardiac output, thereby restoring adequate blood flow and oxygen delivery to vital organs (tissue perfusion).

  5. 5

    A nurse is triaging patients after a multi-vehicle accident. Which patient should be assigned the highest priority for treatment?

    flowchart TD A[Patient A: 30yo, closed fracture of the tibia, strong pedal pulse] --> C{Priority?} B[Patient B: 45yo, multiple abrasions, crying but coherent] --> C D[Patient C: 60yo, severe head trauma, fixed and dilated pupils, no spontaneous respirations] --> C E[Patient D: 25yo, sucking chest wound, respiratory rate of 32/min, deviated trachea] --> C C -->|Highest Priority| E

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    Correct answer: D

    Using the principles of mass casualty triage (like START), the highest priority (RED tag) is given to patients with life-threatening injuries who have a high probability of survival with immediate intervention. The patient with a sucking chest wound and deviated trachea (signs of a tension pneumothorax) fits this category. This is an immediately life-threatening condition that can be treated. The patient with the fracture is 'delayed' (YELLOW). The patient with abrasions is 'minor' (GREEN). The patient with severe head trauma and no respirations is likely 'expectant' or 'deceased' (BLACK) in a mass casualty scenario, as resources must be allocated to save the most lives.

  6. 6

    A nurse in the intensive care unit is managing a patient with Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome (ARDS) who is on mechanical ventilation with high PEEP settings. The patient suddenly develops hypotension, tachycardia, and absent breath sounds on the left side. Which immediate intervention is the highest priority?

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    Correct answer: C

    The patient's signs and symptoms—sudden hypotension, tachycardia, and unilateral absent breath sounds in the context of high PEEP—are classic indicators of a tension pneumothorax, a life-threatening complication of barotrauma. This condition causes mediastinal shift and cardiovascular collapse. The priority is to relieve the pressure in the pleural space immediately via needle thoracostomy, followed by chest tube insertion. Administering fluids or increasing FiO2 does not address the root cause and will not resolve the hemodynamic instability.

  7. 7

    A public health nurse is developing a program to address the high incidence of Type 2 Diabetes in a low-income community. Which of the following interventions represent a primary prevention strategy? (Select THREE)

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    Correct answer: B, C, D

    This is a primary prevention strategy as it aims to prevent the onset of diabetes by teaching healthy lifestyle habits to the general population.

    Promoting regular physical activity is a key primary prevention strategy to reduce the risk of developing Type 2 Diabetes.

    This policy-level intervention promotes healthier eating habits from a young age, aiming to prevent the future development of chronic diseases like diabetes.

  8. 8

    A labor and delivery nurse is monitoring a client with preeclampsia who is receiving an intravenous infusion of magnesium sulfate. The nurse's latest assessment reveals: respiratory rate of 10 breaths/minute, absent deep tendon reflexes, and a urine output of 20 mL/hr. What is the nurse's priority action?

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    Correct answer: C

    The assessment findings are classic signs of magnesium sulfate toxicity, which can lead to respiratory and cardiac arrest. The absolute first priority is to stop the infusion to prevent the patient's condition from worsening. After stopping the infusion, the nurse should then notify the provider and prepare to administer the antidote, calcium gluconate.

  9. 9

    True or False: When administering medications through a nasogastric (NG) tube connected to continuous suction, the nurse should clamp the tube for at least 30 minutes after medication administration before reconnecting suction.

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    Correct answer: A

    This statement is true. To ensure that the medication has time to be absorbed in the stomach and is not immediately removed by the suction, it is standard practice to stop the suction, administer the medication, and then clamp the NG tube for at least 30 to 60 minutes before resuming suction. This prevents the removal of the medication and ensures its therapeutic effect.

  10. 10

    Case Study Scenario:

    A 68-year-old male with a history of COPD, coronary artery disease, and type 2 diabetes is admitted to the medical-surgical unit with an acute exacerbation of COPD. He presents with increased dyspnea, a productive cough with purulent sputum, and wheezing. His vital signs are: Temp 38.5°C, HR 110 bpm, RR 28/min, BP 140/88 mmHg, SpO2 86% on room air.

    The physician's orders include: oxygen therapy to maintain SpO2 >90%, nebulized albuterol and ipratropium Q4H, IV methylprednisolone, IV levofloxacin, and a sputum culture. The patient is anxious and is using accessory muscles to breathe. He is placed on 2L/min of oxygen via nasal cannula, and his SpO2 improves to 91%.

    Two hours later, the nurse finds the patient increasingly lethargic and confused. His respiratory rate has decreased to 12/min and is shallow. His SpO2 remains 91%. What is the most likely cause of this change in the patient's condition?

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    Correct answer: C

    Patients with chronic COPD may rely on a hypoxic drive to breathe. Administering oxygen, even at low levels, can suppress this drive, leading to decreased respiratory rate, retention of carbon dioxide (hypercapnia), and subsequent CO2 narcosis. The clinical presentation of lethargy, confusion, and a decreased, shallow respiratory rate, despite an acceptable SpO2, is a classic sign of this complication. The other options are less likely to cause this specific pattern of respiratory depression.

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