CVA Certified Valuation Analyst Practice Questions
Prepare for CVA with more than an answer.
- Exam fee
- $625 USD
- Level
- Professional
- Valid for
- Ongoing with annual recertification
Domains covered on the exam 9
- Fundamental Analysis and Financial Statement Adjustments12%
- Income Approach14%
- Market Approach12%
- Asset Approach10%
- Cost of Capital Concepts12%
- Discounts and Premiums11%
- Professional Standards10%
- Special Purpose Valuations10%
- Reconciliation and Report Writing9%
- 1
An analyst is reviewing the financial statements of a private company and observes that the owner pays himself a salary of $500,000 per year. A market analysis indicates that a non-owner CEO for a similar-sized company would earn $200,000. For valuation purposes using an income approach, what is the appropriate normalization adjustment?
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Correct answer: C
The owner's salary is $300,000 higher than the market rate ($500,000 - $200,000). This excess amount is considered a discretionary expense, effectively a distribution of profit rather than a true operational cost. To normalize earnings, this excess compensation must be removed as an expense, which means decreasing total expenses by $300,000 (and thereby increasing pre-tax profit by the same amount).
- 2
The Guideline Transaction Method (GTM) is often considered less reliable than the Guideline Public Company (GPC) method because:
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Correct answer: B
A major drawback of the GTM is the quality and quantity of available data. Public companies in the GPC method have extensive, audited financial statements filed with the SEC. Data for private company transactions in the GTM is often self-reported, less detailed, and may not be as reliable, making direct comparisons more challenging and subjective.
- 3
Under ASC 820, Fair Value is defined from the perspective of market participants. This means the valuation should be based on the price that would be received to sell an asset or paid to transfer a liability in an orderly transaction between market participants at the measurement date.
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Correct answer: A
The statement accurately reflects the definition of Fair Value under ASC 820. A key concept is that it is a market-based measurement, not an entity-specific one. It focuses on an 'exit price' from the perspective of hypothetical, knowledgeable, and willing market participants.
- 4
A valuation analyst has calculated three different indications of value for a company: Income Approach: $5.0 million, Market Approach: $5.5 million, Asset Approach: $2.0 million. The company is a profitable, ongoing software business. In the reconciliation of value, which action is most appropriate?
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Correct answer: B
For a profitable, ongoing software business, value is driven by future earnings and intangible assets, not the fair market value of its tangible assets. Therefore, the Income and Market approaches are most relevant. The Asset Approach typically provides a floor value and should be given minimal, if any, weight. The conclusion should be based on a reasoned weighting of the most applicable methods, which in this case are the Income and Market approaches.
- 5
A CVA is valuing a minority interest in a C-Corporation. The valuation derived from a DCF analysis is on a control, marketable basis. To properly reflect the economics of a minority shareholder in a C-Corp who receives returns primarily through dividends, what concept must the analyst consider?
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Correct answer: C
C-Corporations are subject to two layers of tax: at the corporate level on earnings, and at the shareholder level on dividends. A minority shareholder has no control over dividend policy and their return is subject to this double taxation. This economic reality is distinct from pass-through entities (like S-Corps). An analyst must consider this, often by using a dividend capitalization model or by adjusting a free cash flow to equity model to account for the tax burden on distributions, which can implicitly or explicitly affect the final discounts applied.
- 6
A Certified Valuation Analyst is retained to value a specialized software development firm for a shareholder dispute. The firm's primary asset is a proprietary algorithm developed by one of the founding partners. During the analysis, it is determined that the algorithm's utility is heavily dependent on this partner's unique, ongoing insights and modifications. Which valuation concept becomes most critical in this scenario?
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Correct answer: B
The core issue is segregating the value attributable to the individual founder (personal goodwill) from the value that resides within the business itself (enterprise goodwill). Because the algorithm's value is tied to the founder's ongoing personal insights, a significant portion of the firm's value may be personal goodwill, which might not be transferable or considered a divisible asset in a dispute. A key person discount is a related concept, but identifying the nature of the goodwill is the primary analytical step.
- 7
An analyst is calculating the cost of equity for a small, privately held manufacturing company using the build-up method. After establishing the risk-free rate, equity risk premium, and size premium, the analyst must consider the company-specific risk premium (CSRP). Which of the following factors would be most appropriate to include when quantifying the CSRP? (Select TWO)
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Correct answer: B, D
- 8
When performing a valuation under NACVA Professional Standards, an analyst who performs a Calculation Engagement is permitted to issue a conclusion of value.
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Correct answer: B
According to NACVA Professional Standards, a Calculation Engagement results in a calculated value or range of values, not a conclusion of value. A conclusion of value can only be issued in a Valuation Engagement, where the analyst is free to apply the valuation approaches and methods they deem appropriate.
- 9
A CVA is valuing a privately-held company and has determined its enterprise value using a DCF analysis. To arrive at the value of common equity, the analyst must subtract all debt and debt-like items. Which of the following should be treated as a debt-like item and subtracted from the enterprise value?
graph TD A[Enterprise Value (DCF)] --> B{Adjustments}; B -->|Subtract| C[Market Value of Debt]; B -->|Subtract| D[Debt-Like Items?]; C --> F[Equity Value]; D --> F;Show answer details
Correct answer: C
An underfunded pension liability represents a claim on the company's future cash flows that is economically similar to debt. It must be paid out to retirees and is not part of the company's core operations. Therefore, it should be subtracted from enterprise value to arrive at equity value. Accounts receivable is a current asset, deferred revenue is an operational liability, and goodwill is an intangible asset.
- 10
In a valuation report, the reconciliation of value is the section where the analyst explains how different indications of value from various approaches were considered to arrive at a single conclusion of value. A common error in this section is to:
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Correct answer: B
Averaging the results of different valuation approaches is a significant error because it implies that all methods are equally reliable and relevant, which is rarely the case. The reconciliation process requires the analyst to exercise professional judgment, considering the strengths and weaknesses of each approach in the context of the subject company, and to provide a clear rationale for the weights assigned to each.
